도비 RSA 050-ENVCSE01 시험

RSA 인증 050-ENVCSE01시험이 너무 어려워서 시험 볼 엄두도 나지 않는다구요? ITExamDump 덤프만 공부하신다면 IT인증시험공부고민은 이젠 그만 하셔도 됩니다. ITExamDump에서 제공해드리는RSA 인증 050-ENVCSE01시험대비 덤프는 덤프제공사이트에서 가장 최신버전이여서 시험패스는 한방에 갑니다. RSA 인증 050-ENVCSE01시험뿐만 아니라 IT인증시험에 관한 모든 시험에 대비한 덤프를 제공해드립니다. 많은 애용 바랍니다.

ITExamDump에서 출시한 RSA인증050-ENVCSE01 덤프는 시험문제점유율이 가장 높은 시험대비자료입니다. 실제RSA인증050-ENVCSE01시험문제유형과 같은 형식으로 제작된RSA인증050-ENVCSE01 시험공부자료로서ITExamDump덤프의 실용가치를 자랑하고 있습니다.덤프를 공부하여 시험불합격하시면 덤프비용은 환불처리해드립니다.

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시험 번호/코드: 050-ENVCSE01
시험 이름: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials)
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RSA인증050-ENVCSE01시험을 패스하여 자격증을 취득한다면 여러분의 미래에 많은 도움이 될 것입니다.RSA인증050-ENVCSE01시험자격증은 it업계에서도 아주 인지도가 높고 또한 알아주는 시험이며 자격증 하나로도 취직은 문제없다고 볼만큼 가치가 있는 자격증이죠.RSA인증050-ENVCSE01시험은 여러분이 it지식테스트시험입니다.

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ISACA CRISC 인증 덤프

일반적으로ISACA인증시험은 IT업계전문가들이 끊임없는 노력과 지금까지의 경험으로 연구하여 만들어낸 제일 정확한 시험문제와 답들이니. 마침 우리ITExamDump 의 문제와 답들은 모두 이러한 과정을 걸쳐서 만들어진 아주 완벽한 시험대비문제집들입니다. 우리의 문제집으로 여러분은 충분히 안전이 시험을 패스하실 수 있습니다. 우리 ITExamDump 의 문제집들은 모두 100%보장 도를 자랑하며 만약 우리ITExamDump의 제품을 구매하였다면ISACA관련 시험패스와 자격증취득은 근심하지 않으셔도 됩니다. 여러분은 IT업계에서 또 한층 업그레이드 될것입니다.

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제일 빠른 시일내에 제일 간단한 방법으로ISACA인증 CRISC시험을 패스하는 방법이 없냐구요? ITExamDump의ISACA인증 CRISC덤프를 공부하시면 가능합니다. ITExamDump의ISACA인증 CRISC덤프는 많은 분들이 검증한 가장 유력한ISACA인증 CRISC시험공부자료입니다. 덤프의 문제만 기억하시면 패스는 문제없기에 제일 빠른 시일내에 시험을 패스하여 자격증 취득이 가능합니다.

시험 번호/코드: CRISC
시험 이름: ISACA (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control)
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CRISC 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/CRISC.html

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SC0-402 덤프 SCP 인증

우리ITExamDump의 덤프는 여러분이SCP SC0-402인증시험응시에 도움이 되시라고 제공되는 것입니다, 우라ITExamDump에서 제공되는 학습가이드에는SCP SC0-402인증시험관연 정보기술로 여러분이 이 분야의 지식 장악에 많은 도움이 될 것이며 또한 아주 정확한SCP SC0-402시험문제와 답으로 여러분은 한번에 안전하게 시험을 패스하실 수 있습니다,SCP SC0-402인증시험을 아주 높은 점수로 패스할 것을 보장해 드립니다,

ITExamDump의SCP SC0-402시험자료의 문제와 답이 실제시험의 문제와 답과 아주 비슷합니다. 우리의 짧은 학습가이드로 빠른 시일 내에 관련지식을 터득하여 응시준비를 하게 합니다. 우리는 우리의SCP SC0-402인증시험덤프로 시험패스를 보장합니다.

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시험 번호/코드: SC0-402
시험 이름: SCP (Network Defense and Countermeasures (NDC))
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SC0-402 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/SC0-402.html

NO.1 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of feasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of protect the asset
C. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset.
D. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset.
Answer: E

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NO.2 You are considering adding layers to your existing authentication system. Reading through some of
the vendor literature on logon solutions, it frequently mentions two and three factor authentication.
Your assistant asks you to describe the difference between the two. Select the options that correctly
describe two-factor and three-factor authentication:
A. Two-factor authentication is the process providing something you have along with something you
know.
B. Two-factor authentication is the process of providing two forms of authentication, such as a username
and a password.
C. Two-factor authentication is the process of authenticating twice during the login sequence to verify user
identity.
D. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing something you have along with something you
know and something you are.
E. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing three forms of authentication, such as
username,
password, and sitting at
the physical machine to login.
F. Three-factor authentication is the process of authenticating three times during the login sequence to
verify user identity.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 You are the firewall administrator for your company and you have just learned that the
Server administrators are gearing up support an L2TP based VPN solution. You are told
to be sure that your firewall rule sets will not hinder the performance of the VPN. Which
of the following ports will you have to allow through the firewall?
A. TCP 1701
B. UDP 1701
C. TCP 443
D. UDP 443
E. TCP1601
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes the Insurance Model?
A. Before incurring the cost for insuring an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that may
include the cost of
insurance itself.
B. The insurance model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of
replacing the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. The insurance model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such
as
Service Packs, maintenance
updates, and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the insurance model
working
better than if the system
had no preventive measures ever taken.
D. The insurance model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Insurance costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection
attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the
connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be
re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that
they do, does not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings. In
addition, they already have high-speed DSL connections at their homes for personal use.
You have been given the task of figuring out how to get your coworkers to connect to
your company's network securely and reliably. What technology can you use to solve
your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. IPChains
E. IDS
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have been hired at a large company to manage network security. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a meeting and are
discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your assistants asks what the
function of Confidentiality in network security is. Which of the following best describes
Confidentiality?
A. Confidentiality verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
B. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected in order to maintain appropriate levels of
privacy and confidentiality.
Network security must provide a secure channel for the transmission of data and email that does not allow
eavesdropping by
unauthorized users. Data confidentiality ensures the privacy of data on the network system.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes Confidentiality for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Confidentiality is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Data must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or
corruption that is accidental in nature.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You have been hired at a large company to manage the network security issues. Prior to your
arrival, there was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your
assistants asks what the function of Authentication in network security is. Which of the following
best describes Authentication?
A. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Authentication.
Authentication ensures the privacy of
data on the network system.
B. Authentication is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Upon receiving the email or data communication, authentication must be verified to ensure that the
message has not been altered,
modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes authentication for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Authentication verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
Answer: E

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NO.9 You have been hired at a large company to manage network. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of
your assistants asks what the function of Integrity in network security is. Which of the
following best describes Integrity?
A. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
B. Integrity verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, the integrity of the sender
is necessary to verify that
the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is going
to
the right destination.
C. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Integrity. Integrity ensures
the privacy of data on the
network system.
D. Integrity is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information stored
within network systems. Data
must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or corruption
that is accidental in nature. Upon receiving the email or data communication, integrity must be verified to
ensure that the message
has not been altered, modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
E. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes integrity for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the transaction.
Answer: D

SCP pdf   SC0-402인증   SC0-402   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.10 Which of the following best describes the Repair Model?
A. The model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such as Service
Packs, maintenance updates,
and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the repair model working better than
if
the system had no
preventive measures ever taken.
B. The repair model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of replacing
the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Repair costs can be very
high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues
to deal with as well. In
any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The repair model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Before incurring the cost for repair of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may
include the cost of repair
or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the repair model should focus on the restoration of the downed
asset to its working status
within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the reloading or
replacement of software can
be a large cost factor as well.
Answer: E

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NO.11 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have decided to
implement a PPTP VPN solution, which of these ports would you need to allow through the firewall
to allow these VPN sessions into your network?
A. 1723
B. 2317
C. 1273
D. 1372
E. 7132
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-402 dumps   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.12 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have
decided to implement a VPN solution that will use L2TP. Which port or ports would you
need to allow through the firewall to allow the L2TP traffic to reach the VPN server
inside your network from a remote client?
A. TCP 1723
B. UDP 47
C. UDP 1701
D. TCP 443
E. UDP 500
Answer: C

SCP   SC0-402 dumps   SC0-402자격증

NO.13 Which of the following best describes the Total Replacement Model?
A. The total replacement model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing
personnel. Knowing that assets
have very specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience of the
personnel.
B. Before incurring the cost for replacing of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may include the cost of
repair or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the total replacement model should focus on the repairing
of
the downed asset to its
working status within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the
reloading or replacement of
software can be a large cost factor as well.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Replacement costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
In any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The total replacement model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs
of
replacing the critical
assets within your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high
premiums
anyway, down time
while the insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are
today.
E. The total replacement model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as
updates
such as Service Packs,
maintenance updates, and patches, before deciding to replace the asset. Preventive measures can also
improve the chances of the
replacement model working better than if the system had no preventive measures ever taken.
Answer: C

SCP   SC0-402인증   SC0-402

NO.14 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Independent Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Independent Audit?
A. An independent audit is usually conducted by external or outside resources and may be a review or
audit of detailed audit logs.
B. The independent audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to
international standards.
C. The independent audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up
to
international standards.
D. The independent audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
E. The independent audit is typically done by a contracted outside team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
Answer: A

SCP pdf   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.15 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of an infeasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
C. the cost to protect the asset is infeasible to determine
D. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
Answer: A

SCP기출문제   SC0-402최신덤프   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.16 It has come to your attention that some host on the web has tried to do some reconnaissance on your
network and send a VRFY command to try and steal user names. What type of attack was used
against your network?
A. SMTP attack
B. Web browser attack
C. IMAP attack
D. IP Spoofing
E. Account scan
Answer: A

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NO.17 Signatures are generally divided into what three categories?
A. Corruptions
B. Exploits
C. Accesses
D. DoS attacks
E. Reconnaissance
Answer: BDE

SCP   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.18 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that they do does
not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings and they already have
personal high-speed DSL connections at their homes. You have been given the task of figuring out
how to get your coworkers to connect to your company's network securely and reliably. What
technology can you use to solve your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. Firewall
E. IDS
Answer: C

SCP   SC0-402   SC0-402   SC0-402자격증

NO.19 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Operational Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Operational audit?
A. This type of audit is typically done by a contracted external team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
B. This type of audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
C. This type of audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to
international standards.
D. This type of audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to international
standards.
E. This type of audit is usually conducted by external resources and may be a review or audit of detailed
audit logs.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You were recently hired as the security administrator of a small business. You are
reviewing the current state of security in the network and find that the current logging
system must be immediately modified. As the system is currently configured, auditing
has no practical value. Which of the following are the reasons that the current auditing
has little value?
A. The logs go unchecked.
B. The logs are automatically deleted after three months.
C. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 500Kb.
D. The only auditing is successful file access events.
E. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 5000Kb.
Answer: AD

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NO.1 You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where
you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of
$567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project's
to-complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Answer: A

PMI   PMI-SP   PMI-SP

NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
The __________ includes a description of any collateral services required, such as performancereporting
or post-project operational support for the procured item.
Answer: procurement SOW

PMI인증   PMI-SP자료   PMI-SP

NO.3 Once the project's WBS has been created what process may happen next?
A. Estimate activity resources
B. Define activities
C. Estimate activity durations
D. Sequence activities
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are the project manager of the NHA Project. This project is expected to last one year with quarterly
milestones throughout the year. Your project is supposed to be at the third milestone today but you're
likely only 60 percent complete. Your project has a BAC of $745,000 and you've spent $440,000 of the
budget-to-date. What is your schedule performance index for this project?
A. 80
B. 1.02
C. 102
D. 0.80
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are the project manager of the GHT Project. Ben, one of your project team members, does not
understand the idea of a milestone. Which of the following best describes what a milestone is?
A. A significant point in the project
B. A goal of reaching a significant delivery of project benefits by an identified date
C. An imposed date for the project to reach a given point
D. The completion of a project activity that is crucial to project completion
Answer: A

PMI기출문제   PMI-SP덤프   PMI-SP

NO.6 You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the
figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect
the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the
activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
Answer: D

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NO.7 George is the project manager of the NHQ Project and has a budget of $778,000. The project is
scheduled to last for one year with an equal amount of work completed each quarter. The second quarter
of the project has ended and George has spent $325,000 but has only finished forty percent of the project.
Management needs a variance report for the project schedule. What value should George report in this
instance?
A. .96
B. -$77,800
C. $-34,500
D. -$13,800
Answer: B

PMI   PMI-SP시험문제   PMI-SP

NO.8 Which one of the following estimate types is a form of expert judgment?
A. Parametric estimate
B. Analogous estimate
C. Bottom-up estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are the project manager of the GHY Project. Management wants you to create a process
improvement plan for your project. Your project will be studied by management and will become a
standard for all future organizational projects based on your project's performance, approach, and
implementation of project processes. All of the following should be included in your project's process
improvement plan except for which one?
A. Process boundaries
B. Process configuration
C. Targets for improved performance
D. Identification of project risks
Answer: D

PMI   PMI-SP   PMI-SP시험문제   PMI-SP자료

NO.10 John works as a project manager of the NHQ Project. He has created the project network diagram as
shown in the figure:
Based on the project network diagram, how much float is available for Activity H if Activity B is delayed by
four days and Activity E is delayed by two days?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: A

PMI자료   PMI-SP   PMI-SP

NO.11 Your project team is executing the project plan and things are going well. Your team has reached
its first milestone and is now in the second phase of the project. The project stakeholders have requested
that you find a method to reduce the duration of the project. They will reward you and your project team
with a 25 percent bonus of the project costs if you can finish the project thirty days earlier than what was
already planned. The stakeholders, however, will not approve any additional labor costs as part of the
agreement. Which approach could you use to shorten the duration of the project?
A. Perform resource leveling for the project.
B. Crash the project schedule.
C. Fast track the project.
D. Remove things from the project scope.
Answer: C

PMI   PMI-SP   PMI-SP

NO.12 Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the
stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders
process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: B

PMI   PMI-SP   PMI-SP dump

NO.13 Mark is the project manager of the GHQ Project. He is happily reporting that his project has a schedule
performance index of 2.12. Management, however, does not think this is good news.
What is the most likely reason why management does not like an SPI of 2.12?
A. It is not good news because a larger number means the schedule duration estimates were likely to be
wrong to begin with.
B. They likely do not understand the SPI formula.
C. It is not good news, as the number should be closer to 100 than 0.
D. It is good news, but Mark may have large cost variances to achieve this value.
Answer: A

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NO.14 The Define Activities process is the first process in the project time management knowledge are a.
The Define Activities process creates just three outputs as a result of decomposition, rolling wave
planning, templates, and expert judgment. Which one of the following is not an output of the Define
Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Milestone list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project document updates
Answer: D

PMI   PMI-SP   PMI-SP시험문제

NO.15 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate
performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you
create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report
Answer: B

PMI   PMI-SP자료   PMI-SP   PMI-SP기출문제

NO.16 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. Management has set a conformance to the project
schedule for your project at 0.95. What does this term mean?
A. It means the largest schedule variance you can have is five percent.
B. It is the earned value divided by the planned value for your project.
C. It is the expectation of management to be 95 on schedule at 95 percent of the project.
D. It means you will need to earn at least 95 cents per dollar invested in the project.
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are the project manager for your organization. You need the oak cabinets for your project
delivered by December 1 in order to install the floors around the oak cabinets by December 15.
Your company's procurement office generally takes 45 days to complete procurement orders. Based on
this information, how should you schedule the lead time for the cabinet delivery?
A. Cabinet procurement December 1, plus 45 days lead time
B. Cabinet procurement November 15
C. Cabinet procurement December 1, minus 45 dayslead time
D. Cabinet procurement December 15 minus 45 dayslead time
Answer: C

PMI   PMI-SP   PMI-SP

NO.18 Beth is the project manager for her organization. Her current project has many deliverables that have
been defined at a high level, but the details of the deliverables are still unknown. In her project, Beth is
planning in detail only the activities that are most imminent in the project work. This approach to project
management planning is known as what?
A. Imminent activity management
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Predecessor-only diagramming
D. Decomposition
Answer: B

PMI덤프   PMI-SP자격증   PMI-SP   PMI-SP

NO.19 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. You have created the project network diagram as
shown in the figure:
You are concerned about a risk on Activity G that if it happens will delay the project by four days.
You would like to utilize float for Activity G. How much float is available for Activity G to help offset the risk
event?
A. Five days
B. Four days
C. Eleven days
D. Zero
Answer: D

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NO.20 Examine the figure given below:
If Activity B takes eight days to complete instead of five days as schedule, how long can you now delay
Activity H?
A. Three days
B. One day
C. Four days
D. Zero days
Answer: B

PMI   PMI-SP   PMI-SP   PMI-SP덤프

NO.21 You are the project manager for your company. You are working with the activities defined in the figure
below.
What will happen to your project if Activity F takes five additional days to complete than what was
expected?
A. Your project's critical path will shift to ACFI.
B. Your project will be late by five days.
C. Your project can still complete on time as float is available onActivity I.
D. Your project will now have two critical paths.
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which of the following scheduling techniques identifies the successor activities and the
predecessor activities to assist the project manager in sequencing the project work?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method
B. Schedule network template
C. Dependency determination
D. Activity on the Node
Answer: A

PMI   PMI-SP   PMI-SP

NO.23 You are the project manager of the NHGQ project for your company. You must create and distribute
performance reports every week to your key project stakeholders. What communication technique do you
normally use to distribute reports?
A. Push technique
B. Many-to-many
C. One-to-one
D. Pull technique
Answer: A

PMI   PMI-SP dump   PMI-SP인증

NO.24 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. When activities are logically linked, they become the
__________
Answer: Schedule.

NO.25 Ben is the project manager for his organization. His project has 26 stakeholders this week and will
have five additional stakeholders next week. How many more communication channels will Ben's project
have next week?
A. 140
B. 10
C. 325
D. 5
Answer: A

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NO.26 Your project has a BAC of $750,000 and is 75 percent complete. According to your plan, however, your
project should actually be 80 percent complete. You have spent $575,000 of your project budget to reach
this point and you are worried about the project not being able to complete based on your current project
budget. What is the to-complete performance index for this project?
A. 0.98
B. -$16,677
C. 1.07
D. 0.94
Answer: C

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NO.27 Gina is the project manager for her organization and she is working with her project team to define the
project activities. In this project, the stakeholders are sensitive to the project completion date,
so Gina is stressing to her project team members that while they need to provide and account for all of the
project activities, they should focus on one work package in the WBS at a time. In order to start the
decomposition of the project work packages into activities, Gina will need all of the following except for
which one?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. WBS
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates
for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for
this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Answer: A

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NO.29 Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project.
There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule.
Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

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NO.30 You have created the project network diagram for the ABC project. You are exploring total float and
free float for that project. Martin, a project team member, wants to know the difference between total float
and free float. What is the difference between total float and free float?
A. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project
successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project completion date.
B. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any
project successors.
C. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any
project predecessors.
D. Total float is the amount of time a non-critical activity can be delayed without delaying any project
successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project completion date.
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: A10
시험 이름: CIPS (Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply)
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NO.1 THE CHARTERED INSTITUTE OF PURCHASING &SUPPLY
ADVANCED CERTIFICATE IN PURCHASING AND SUPPLY
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply Management
A10
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*SECTION B: Questions 11?¡ìC16 are worth 5 marks each. You are advised to spend
approximately 50 minutes on this section.
*SECTION C: Questions 17?¡ìC19 require full answers with examples where appropriate.
Question 17 is worth 20 marks. Questions 18 and 19 are worth 15 marks each. You are advised to
spend a minimum of half an hour on each question.
*Answers should be written in this answer booklet in the spaces provided. If you require
continuation paper you should request this from the invigilator. Your candidate number and
question number must be clearly marked on each sheet of continuation paper.
*All answers must be written in ink. Pencil should only be used where graphs/diagrams are
required. Cross out any work which you do not wish to be examined.
*Rough working must be shown, and crossed out.
*The use of silent, battery-operated, non-programmable calculators is permitted.

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NO.2 Q3. Which one of the following performance indicators is best used to assess whether there are
slow moving stock items in a store?
A. Total number of items held
B. Average number of stock issues over a period
C. Total value of stock held
D. Average number of deliveries received
Topic 3, A
A

CIPS시험문제   A10 dump   A10

NO.3 Advanced Certificate in Purchasing and Supply
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply
A10
Senior Assessor's Report
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The senior assessor??s report is written in order to provide candidates with feedback relating to
the examination. It is designed as a tool for candidates ?¡ìC both those who have sat the
examination and those who wish to use as part of their revision for future examinations.
Candidates are advised to refer to the Examination Techniques Guide (see the following link
http://www.cips.org/documents/ExaminationtechniquesguideFeb07.pdf) as well as this senior
assessor??s report.
The senior assessor??s report aims to provide the following information:
* An indication of how to approach the examination question
* An indication of the points the answer should include and how marks are allocated
* An indication of candidate performance for the examination question
APPENDIX
A syllabus matrix for the examination is included as an appendix. It highlights the learning
objectives of the syllabus unit content that each question is testing.
The unit content guides are available to download at the following link:
http://www.cips.org/studyqualify/cipsqualifications/syllabuses/
ADDITIONAL SOURCES OF INFORMATION
The Supply Management magazine is a useful source of information and candidates are advised
to include it in their reading during their study. Please see the following link to the Supply
Management website http://www.supplymanagement.com/
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Question 11
Answer should identify FIVE of the following key points (1 mark was allocated for each correct
point) - initial briefing regarding performance areas, identification of what the organisation requires
from the employee, highlighting of any problems, is performance on track?, feedback during the
meeting, can the employer provide any assistance and have any training needs been identified.
The qualities of responses to this question were quite high and many candidates scored a good
level of marks.
Question 12
Candidates were required to LIST any FIVE of the following - increased leverage, ease of control
of fewer suppliers, greater opportunities of negotiation, increased joint development potential,
value adding initiatives may be explored, more use of supplier agreements, less transactional
activity, more use of strategic procurement.
The majority of candidates answered this question very well, with strong responses giving four or
five correct points. Weaker answers gave incorrect examples of the benefits of reducing the total
number of suppliers.
Question 13
Candidates were required to explain TWO ways in which purchasers could achieve continuous
professional development. Candidates should recognise that 2 ? marks are available for the
explanation of each 'way'. This breaks down as 1 mark available for identification of each method
with up to a further 1? marks available for the explanation of how the method used would benefit
the purchaser (or their employer). Areas that answers could include were: own study, attendance
at professional association meetings, attendance on courses/distance learning, formal training,
site visits, job rotation, or academic achievement.
The overall approach to this question could have been better. This is a key section within the
learning outcomes of this unit and many candidates performed poorly and identified areas that
were irrelevant to the context of the question. A few strong answers managed to correctly identify
two ways and briefly explained the value of the concept, in the context of purchaser's professional
development.
Question 14
Part (a) asked for THREE correctly titled key performance indicators (KPIs), for example, stockturns,
service levels, stock damage, stock accuracy, accuracy of pick rates (1 mark for each
appropriate KPI, up to 3 marks). Part (b) required candidates to explain how the use of KPIs can
improve the management of stock.
Many candidates gave incorrect KPIs for part (a), or failed to list insufficient KPIs. Many poor
answers focused on efficiency and effectiveness, rather than actually identify a KPI measure.
Following on from this part (b) was poorly answered as a result of the candidate failing to
understand the context of the question. This is a key part of the unit content and it is important that
candidates address this syllabus topic.
Question 15
Benchmarking is a key concept and allows buyers to assess the suitability or performance of a
supplier when compared to a known standard.
Part (a) required candidates to describe the purpose of supplier benchmarking. Benchmarking
provides information which may be used to select the correct supplier or motivate a potential
supplier to improve its products or overall performance.
Part (b) required candidates to list two problems that can be encountered with benchmarking.
There were many weak answers to this question and this may suggest a knowledge gap in the
candidates who sat this paper. Many responses gave a poor or inappropriate response to part (a)
and incorrect examples for part (b). Some answers gained marks for part (b) but were awarded no
marks for an incorrect answer to part (a).
Question 16
Candidates were required to explain TWO measurements that contribute to a simple vendor
measurement system. Examples that could have been explained are: quality ?¡ìC quantity of
acceptable deliveries as a percentage, deliveries ?¡ìC percentage of accurate on-time deliveries,
after sales service ?¡ìC response time set against an agreed target
Many candidates scored highly on this question by correctly identifying two measures and then
giving an appropriate explanation. A few candidates gave inappropriate answers or failed to
adequately explain what the measure was.
Topic 4, E
E

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NO.4 Topic 1, D
D
1. CORRECT TEXT
Q11. Identify the FIVE stages that should be followed to ensure an effective staff appraisal.
Topic 2, F
F

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NO.5 CORRECT TEXT
Q16. Identify FIVE areas that should be covered when appraising the buyer's performance.
Topic 1, D
D

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. Microfast Foods is concerned about the cost of holding large quantities of stocks for its food
processing operation, in particular the issue of the high cost of perishable ingredients and
'waste'. The company has no formal procedure for tracking levels and usage of inventory
within its stores. The managing director of Microfast has asked you to advise him as follows:
a) Briefly explain to the managing director why it is important to continually review and
measure inventory levels.
b) Within the stores and warehouse environment there are THREE factors that need to be
examined ?¡ìC Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness ?¡ìC in relation to performance
measures. The managing director is unsure of the detail. Provide a brief explanation of
each in the context of this business.

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NO.7 Q6. Which of the following tools of analysis can be used to classify stock?
A. Value chain analysis
B. ABC analysis
C. SMART analysis
D. Quantum analysis
Topic 1, D
D
NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. An organisation wishes to review its procurement processes to try and achieve
operational benefits.
You have been asked by the senior materials manager to advise on how the
process should proceed, as follows:
(a) List THREE key tasks where buyers' performance is directly linked to the
objectives of supply management.
(b) For each of the three key tasks, give an example of how the purchaser??s
performance could be measured.
(c) Explain how a review of these key tasks could benefit an organisation.
Topic 5, B
B
9.
Q2. Which of the following is Pareto's Law?
A. The law of supply and demand
B. The law of vendor rating
C. The 80/20 rule
D. The 90/30 rule
10.
Q3. Which one of the following is a recognised measure of financial performance?
A. Stock exchange viability test
B. CLIP performance
C. Net profit before tax
D. Sales analysis

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시험 번호/코드: 200-500
시험 이름: Zend-Technologies (Zend PHP 5 Certification)
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NO.1 Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);
A. Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B. Error: Typehints cannot be references
C. Result is NULL
D. Result is object of type stdClass
E. Result is 42
Answer: E

Zend-Technologies시험문제   200-500   200-500 dump   200-500   200-500시험문제

NO.2 Which options do you have in PHP to set the expiry date of a session?
A. Set the session.duration directive in php.ini
B. Set session cookie expiry date locally via session_set_cookie_params()
C. Set session expiry date locally via session_cache_expire()
D. None of the above
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   200-500덤프   200-500최신덤프

NO.3 Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?
A. Cookie Data
B. Session Data
C. Remote IP Address
D. User Agent
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies최신덤프   200-500 dumps   200-500   200-500기출문제   200-500시험문제

NO.4 What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?
A. getAttributeNS()
B. getAttribute()
C. hasAttribute()
D. hasAttributeNS()
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies시험문제   200-500   200-500   200-500 dumps   200-500

NO.5 Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array('a', 'b');
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array('a', 'b', 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, 'a', 'b')
C. array(array(1, 2), 'a', 'b')
D. None of the above
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies dump   200-500자료   200-500

NO.6 You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to
dynamically load PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server's php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server's php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server's php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the
auto_prepend_file directive to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB

Zend-Technologies   200-500   200-500기출문제   200-500   200-500

NO.7 How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start--, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies시험문제   200-500자격증   200-500   200-500자격증

NO.8 Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)
A. Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B. Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C. Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D. Recover from user errors
Answer: AC

Zend-Technologies dumps   200-500   200-500최신덤프   200-500최신덤프

NO.9 What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?
A. 255 Bytes
B. 255 Characters
C. 512 Bytes
D. 512 Characters
E. No Limit
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies   200-500기출문제   200-500 pdf   200-500 dumps

NO.10 When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function
should be used for the best possible result?
A. levenshtein()
B. metaphone()
C. similar_text()
D. soundex()
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies   200-500   200-500   200-500

NO.11 REST is a(n) ...
A. Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B. Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C. API to get information from social networking sites.
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies기출문제   200-500덤프   200-500 dump   200-500 dump

NO.12 Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies인증   200-500   200-500   200-500자격증

NO.13 Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?
A. (int)'t';
B. ord('t');
C. to_ascii('t');
D. chr('t');
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies기출문제   200-500   200-500

NO.14 When a class is defined as final it:
A. Can no longer be extended by other classes.
B. Means methods in the class are not over-loadable.
C. Cannot be defined as such, final is only applicable to object methods.
D. Is no longer iteratable.
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   200-500자격증   200-500

NO.15 Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
1 <?php
2 $text = <<<EOT
3 The big bang bonged under the bung.
4 EOT;
5
6 preg_match_all('@b.n?g@', $text, $matches);
7 ?>
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies   200-500   200-500시험문제

NO.16 You analyze the code of a collegue and see, it uses the function strcasecmp. You try it out to see what
it does and use the following function call:
strcasecmp('hello my dear!', 'Hello my DEAR!');
The function call returns "0". What does that mean?
A. String 1 is less than string 2.
B. The strings are considered equal.
C. String 2 is less than string 1.
D. The strings have equal length.
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies인증   200-500   200-500

NO.17 What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
}
function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}
}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. 3
E. No Output, PHP will generate an error message.
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   200-500자료   200-500   200-500

NO.18 Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD

Zend-Technologies덤프   200-500   200-500덤프   200-500최신덤프

NO.19 Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3):
A. A single function
B. A single method from a class
C. Multiple functions at once
D. All methods from a class
E. All classes defined in a script
Answer: ACD

Zend-Technologies최신덤프   200-500   200-500인증

NO.20 Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   200-500 dumps   200-500

NO.21 What is the content of $c after the following code has executed?
$a = 2;
$b = 3;
$c = ($a++ * ++$b);
A. 0
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Answer:

NO.22 How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match('/

FileMaker FM0-304 덤프

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시험 번호/코드: FM0-304
시험 이름: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 10)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
100% 환불보장약속
100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 191 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 A FileMaker Pro 10 database contains the following two scripts:
Script A:
Set Variable [$$varFoo; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Perform Script ["Script B"; Parameter: $$varFoo / 2]
Show Custom Dialog [$$varFoo]
Script B:
Set Variable [$counterStart; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counterStart]
Set Variable [$x; Value:1]
Loop
Set Variable [$$varFoo, Value:$$varFoo + $x]
Set Variable [$x; Value:$x + 1]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counter-1]
Exit Loop If [$counter < .5 * $counterStart]
End Loop
Exit Script [Result:$$varFoo]
With a Script Parameter of 11 passed into Script A, what result is shown in the custom dialog when Script
A completes?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
E. 34
Answer: D

FileMaker인증   FM0-304최신덤프   FM0-304

NO.2 Which two techniques can be used to import a table and its record data from one FileMaker Pro file
to another using FileMaker Pro Advanced? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Import Records > File command and choose New Table as the Target.
B. Copy and paste a table occurrence from one relationship graph to the other.
C. Use the File Migration Tool from Solution Options in the Developer Utilities dialog.
D. Use the Import button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog to import the tables field
definitions, then use the Import Records > File command to import the record data.
E. Use the Copy button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog of the source database, then
use the Paste button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog of the target database.
Answer: AD

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304자료   FM0-304시험문제   FM0-304 dumps

NO.3 What is the maximum size of binary data that can be stored in a container field?
A. 1 gigabytes
B. 2 gigabytes
C. 4 gigabytes
D. 8 gigabytes
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-304최신덤프   FM0-304   FM0-304자료

NO.4 According to the FileMaker Server Configuration Guide, which two hard drive configurations are
considered acceptable best practices for storage of hosted databases? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: CD

FileMaker   FM0-304자료   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.5 A script saves a group of records as a PDF. The resulting file needs to be saved on a user's desktop
and the filename must contain that person's name along with the current date (without additional user
input).
How should the output file be specified in the script step?
A. Use a file path that references a variable containing the desired filename and path.
B. Use a file path that references a globally stored field containing the desired filename and path.
C. Use a file path defined by a calculation formula that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
D. Use a file path that references a calculation field that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
Answer: A

FileMaker기출문제   FM0-304   FM0-304 pdf   FM0-304

NO.6 Which statement is true when a script is installed on a window using the Install OnTimer Script step?
A. The script can not operate on hidden windows.
B. The window must be closed to uninstall the script.
C. The script will run on any new window created from the initial window.
D. In a window with more than one installed script, the scripts will be performed in the order in which they
were installed.
Answer: C

FileMaker덤프   FM0-304 dumps   FM0-304   FM0-304자료

NO.7 Given the following formula:
Case (
PatternCount (Name ; " " ) > 2 ; RightWords (Name ; 2) ;
Position (Name ; " " ; 1 ; 1 ) > 0 ; LeftWords (Name ; 2) ;
MiddleWords (Name ; 2 ; 2)
)
If the field Name contains "John Q. Adams", what will the formula return?
A. John Q
B. John Q.
C. Q Adams
D. Q. Adams
Answer: A

FileMaker최신덤프   FM0-304최신덤프   FM0-304시험문제   FM0-304자격증

NO.8 What is the maximum theoretical file size for a FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 2 Gigabytes
B. 4 Gigabytes
C. 8 Gigabytes
D. 2 Terabytes
E. 8 Terabytes
Answer: E

FileMaker   FM0-304 dump   FM0-304최신덤프   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.9 What is the theoretical maximum record count in FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

FileMaker   FM0-304 dumps   FM0-304

NO.10 Which two statements are true if two windows in a FileMaker Pro 10 database display records based
on the same layout? (Choose two.)
A. If a record is being edited in one window, it cannot be edited in the other window.
B. A find performed in one window will be available as a Recent Find in the other window.
C. If a new record is created in one window, it will become the active record in both windows.
D. If a custom menu set is installed in one window, it will become the active menu set in the other window
as well.
Answer: AB

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304자료

NO.11 What is the maximum size of a calculation formula, including text and numbers, any referenced fields,
operators, functions, and parentheses?
A. 1,024 characters
B. 8,000 characters
C. 16,000 characters
D. 30,000 characters
E. 32,000 characters
Answer: D

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.12 Which three must be enabled when using FileMaker Server 10 and Web publishing on 64-bit editions
of the Windows operating system? (Choose three.)
A. ISAPI filters
B. ISAPI extensions
C. Deployment Assistant
D. Windows Addressing Mode to 32-bit only
E. Enable 32-bit mode in FileMaker Server Admin Console
F. Application pooling compatibility with 32-bit applications
Answer: ABF

FileMaker dump   FM0-304기출문제   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.13 Using FileMaker Server 10, which two groups of ports must be open to provide database services,
web services, and administrative services via the Admin Console? (Choose two.)
A. 80, 5003, 16004
B. 80, 5003, 16000
C. 5003, 5006, 16014
D. 16001,16016, 16018
E. 16001, 16004, 16007
Answer: BD

FileMaker인증   FM0-304인증   FM0-304   FM0-304덤프   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.14 Which five operating systems are supported for FileMaker Server 10 and FileMaker Server 10
Advanced? (Choose five.)
A. Mac OS X 10.5.4
B. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
C. Mac OS X Server 10.4.11
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows Vista Business SP1
F. Windows NT Server SP4
G. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition SP2
H. Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition SP1
Answer: ACEGH

FileMaker자료   FM0-304기출문제   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.15 Which ports must be open when FileMaker Server 10 is on one machine to provide just database
services and full administration console functionality?
A. 5003,16000,16001
B. 5006, 16000,16001
C. 80, 5003,16000,16001
D. 80, 5006,16001,16004
E. 591, 5006,16001,16004
Answer: A

FileMaker dump   FM0-304기출문제   FM0-304시험문제   FM0-304자격증

NO.16 What is the maximum allowable depth of the call stack at any point in a FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced
custom function?
A. 8,000 calls
B. 10,000 calls
C. 16,000 calls
D. 50,000 calls
Answer: B

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304덤프   FM0-304최신덤프

NO.17 A table in a FileMaker Pro 10 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. All of the records will be imported. The user will also see the custom error message.
C. None of the records will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.18 Which two does the HTML Database Design Report in FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced include? (Choose
two.)
A. user account Saved Finds criteria
B. ODBC driver information for external data sources
C. the file path lists for external FileMaker data sources
D. the IP addresses of the servers hosting external ODBC data sources
E. account names and passwords for the FileMaker file(s) being analyzed
F. user names and passwords assigned to DSNs used for external data sources
Answer: CF

FileMaker   FM0-304시험문제   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.19 Which three does the HTML Database Design Report in FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced include?
(Choose three.)
A. a script triggers section
B. conditional formatting settings
C. object line, fill and effect settings
D. resizable layout object anchoring settings
E. the visibility status of fields in Table View
F. Text, Number, Date, and Time field formatting settings
Answer: BDE

FileMaker인증   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304 pdf   FM0-304

NO.20 Which two statements are true about the [Full Access] privilege set in a FileMaker Pro 10 database?
(Choose two.)
A. It must be assigned to at least one account.
B. It is the only privilege set that can use Custom Functions.
C. It is the only privilege set that can view the Relationships Graph.
D. It can be deleted only if another full access privilege set has been created.
Answer: AC

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304 dump   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.21 Which two statements are true about windows in a FileMaker database? (Choose two.)
A. A given user may have a maximum of 100 windows open concurrently.
B. Creation of a new window will activate an OnLayoutLoad script trigger.
C. On the Windows platform, only the currently active window can be maximized.
D. The Adjust Window script step can be used to move a window to a location specified by a calculation
formula.
Answer: BC

FileMaker pdf   FM0-304 dump   FM0-304자격증

NO.22 Which two statements are true regarding tooltips? (Choose two.)
A. Tooltips will function in Find mode.
B. A tooltip can be attached to any FileMaker layout object.
C. Tooltip text can only incorporate field data that is stored.
D. A tooltip defined by the formula = $tooltip can only display its message when a script is running (or
paused).
E. Tooltips can only be created or modified using FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced, though they will function in
a file opened by FileMaker Pro 10.
Answer: AB

FileMaker최신덤프   FM0-304자격증   FM0-304

NO.23 Which three are capabilities of the Save Records as PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. append to existing PDF
B. specify email recipients
C. create a "PDF Form" document
D. create a directory to export a PDF document into
E. create a PDF based on a layout with a blank record
F. specify a PDF name by referencing a variable ($variable)
Answer: AEF

FileMaker dump   FM0-304   FM0-304 dumps   FM0-304 dump   FM0-304덤프

NO.24 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.25 Given the following Relationships Graph:w0VFM10256Y The users want to view a list of unique product
records purchased by a found set of customers from the state of NY.
If the data in the system supports this request and there are no changes to the Relationships Graph,
which two techniques successfully accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. On a layout based on Customer, include a portal based on the Product table occurrence. Find where
State = "NY".
B. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Navigate to a layout based on the
Products table. Select the menu Records > Saved Finds and choose "NY" under Recent Finds.
C. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Then run a script with the step Go To
Related Records[ ], using Match all records in current found set to navigate to the desired set of Product
records.
D. Run a script from a special Customer layout that performs a Copy All Records/Requests[ ] script step,
then navigates to a Product layout including a Customer portal, uses Paste[ ] into a Find request, and
finally Perform Find[ ] to result in the desired found set.
E. Use a script to loop through the found set of Customer records, assembling a set of ID values into a
global variable $$customers. Navigate to a layout based on Products and in Find Mode enter the
Customer::State field. Choose the menu Requests > Paste Requests and specify State = $$customers.
Click OK to perform the Find.
Answer: BC

FileMaker   FM0-304 dumps   FM0-304기출문제

NO.26 Which two events can activate an OnObjectModify script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. selecting a checkbox
B. scrolling in a portal
C. scrolling in a text field
D. switching tabs in a tab control
E. clicking a link displayed in a Web Viewer
Answer: AD

FileMaker인증   FM0-304 dumps   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.27 A script executed by a FileMaker Server schedule running on a Windows server exports a group of
records to a tab-delimited file. The resulting file needs to be saved to the FileMaker Server Documents
folder and the filename must contain a current timestamp appended to the word orders_ (e.g.
orders__02042009065656.tab).
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Assuming a default installation of FileMaker Server, the resulting file will be located at:
C:\Users\Administrator\Documents.
B. Assuming a default installation of FileMaker Server, the resulting file will be located at: C:\Program
Files\FileMaker\FileMaker Server\Data\Documents.
C. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a variable with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( DocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentTimeStamp );
"0123456789")
& ".tab".
D. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a calculation field with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( DocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentTimeStamp );
"0123456789")
& ".tab".
E. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a variable with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( ServerDocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentServerTimeStamp );
"0123456789") & ".tab".
Answer: BC

FileMaker인증   FM0-304자격증   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304기출문제

NO.28 Which two statements are true in a FileMaker Pro 10 database containing scripts? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple changes to multiple scripts can be saved using one operation.
B. Edits to a script can be undone by closing the script's Edit Script window without saving changes.
C. Running a script while other scripts have unsaved changes will cause all unsaved changes to be
reverted.
D. Closing the Manage Scripts window will prompt the user to save changes to the order or grouping of
scripts.
Answer: AB

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.29 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 10 Advanced?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 125
D. 250
E. 999
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-304최신덤프   FM0-304 dumps

NO.30 What is a reason to use the Let() function in a formula for a FileMaker Pro 10 calculation field?
A. to limit the iterations of a Loop() function used in the formula
B. to modify data in a text field referenced elsewhere in the formula
C. to define a custom function that can be used in other calculation formulas
D. to set a global variable $$var that can be used elsewhere (e.g. within a script)
Answer: D

FileMaker인증   FM0-304   FM0-304덤프   FM0-304

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